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Original: 1/20/2007 1:04 AM
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Saturday, January 20, 2007
 

Is "could have done otherwise" really necessary?

Taken from http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/free-will-foreknowledge/:

Black, an evil neurosurgeon, wishes to see White dead but is unwilling to do the deed himself. Knowing that Mary Jones also despises White and will have a single good opportunity to kill him, Black inserts a mechanism into Jones's brain that enables Black to monitor and to control Jones's neurological activity. If the activity in Jones's brain suggests that she is on the verge of deciding not to kill White when the opportunity arises, Black's mechanism will intervene and cause Jones to decide to commit the murder. On the other hand, if Jones decides to murder White on her own, the mechanism will not intervene. It will merely monitor but will not affect her neurological function. Now suppose that when the occasion arises, Jones decides to kill White without any "help" from Black's mechanism. In the judgment of Frankfurt and most others, Jones is morally responsible for her act. Nonetheless, it appears that she is unable to do otherwise since if she had attempted to do so, she would have been thwarted by Black's device. (Adapted from an example by John Fischer, 1982).

Is Fischer's hypothetical situation successful in its attempt to prove the compatibility of free will and determinism? Discuss.

 Posted 1/20/2007 1:04 AM - 5 comments

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"could have done otherwise" only has meaning if it is followed by an 'if' statement.  For example, I could have done otherwise if X had been true.
Posted 1/21/2007 4:27 AM by Rustophilus Xanga Lifetime Member - reply

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So you would say that people are morally responsible for their actions, regardless of the fact that they "can't do otherwise," right?
Posted 1/22/2007 1:20 AM by H3W - reply

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Is Fischer's hypothetical situation successful in its attempt to prove the compatibility of free will and determinism?

 

Nope.  The murder will not be the action of both Black and Jones; it has to be the action of one or the other.  If Jones murders White without Black’s intervention it is her act alone.  If Black intervenes and causes Jones to murder White, it is Black’s act alone: Black merely used Jones as a weapon, just as he would use a pistol or whatnot. 

 

In the former instance Jones chose to murder White in an act of free will.  In the latter instance, Jones had no choice in the matter; she was determined to commit the murder by Black.  The situation doesn’t prove compatibilism, it merely illustrates the difference between free will and determinism.

 

I don’t think it’s possible (in the physical world) to logically show how free will and determinism can possibly be compatible.  The situation that Fischer uses is a situation between man and man, not God (or nature) and man.  The way in which free will and determinism are compatible is a way that the human mind cannot (at least for the present) comprehend.  Any logical way to make the two compatible fails, because our logic is limited. 

 

However, there is one imperfect analogy that does serve to illustrate the idea: God is the author, men are the characters.  God has determined the actions of men in His spiritual medium.  Men have freewill in their physical medium.  It is compatibilism.
Posted 1/22/2007 12:07 PM by TheSocraticClub - reply

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Correct.  Moral responsibility is a concept that only exists to the degree that it can be useful.  Regardless of how free they are, murderers shouldn't just be allowed to keep murdering.  They should be kept away from society, at the very least.
Posted 1/22/2007 9:44 PM by Rustophilus Xanga Lifetime Member - reply

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Guns don't kill people, people kill people. People just have a harder time of it without guns.

Posted 1/31/2007 3:17 AM by Da__Vinci Xanga True Member Xanga Premium Member - reply


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